Sanctification - to be made holy, to become spiritually clean, to be made perfect, comes through the blood of Christ, but how?
Looking again at Moses 6:59-62, which will be my primary goal to dissect:
"That by reason of transgression cometh the fall, which fall bringeth death, and inasmuch as ye were born into the world by water, and blood, and the spirit, which I have made, and so became of dust a living soul, even so ye must be born again into the kingdom of heaven, of water, and of the Spirit, and be cleansed by blood, even the blood of mine Only Begotten; that ye might be sanctified from all sin, and enjoy the words of eternal life in this world, and eternal life in the world to come, even immortal glory;
For by the water ye keep the commandment; by the Spirit ye are justified, and by the blood ye are sanctified;
Therefore it is given to abide in you; the record of heaven; the Comforter; the peaceable things of immortal glory; the truth of all things; that which quickeneth all things, which maketh alive all things; that which knoweth all things, and hath all power according to wisdom, mercy, truth, justice, and judgment.
And now, behold, I say unto you: This is the plan of salvation unto all men, through the blood of mine Only Begotten, who shall come in the meridian of time."
Again, this scripture is impressive because it attempts to state the Plan of Salvation in one sentence. I'll now take it one phrase at a time.
The Fall is obvious. The second phrase is interesting to understanding the symbol of blood, "born into the world by water, and blood, and the spirit, which I have made, and so became of dust a living soul," Our soul, the union of our physical body with our spirit, was created out of the 'dust' of the earth - carbon and other elements found in the earth. This scripture indicates water, blood, and spirit as what really comes from our Father. The spirit is straight forward - we are spirit children of our Father and when he put the 'breath of life' into us our spirits inhabited our mortal bodies. The human body is more than 50% water by weight. That's a funny image. Then the blood is what carries life between our body. One could say blood plus water plus physical elements equals life.
Is it possible that our blood is 'mortal' blood and in the afterlife the major physical change is 'immortal' blood? We know blood has a place in the resurrection - Christ Himself declared to be flesh and blood. How is our blood related to our spirit? If we had a superior blood - one that healed and constantly regenerated life, wouldn't that meet the description of the resurrection?
Going back to the first part of the scripture and the Fall, did original sin change our blood? Did the spiritual impurity damage our blood?
Wednesday, October 31, 2007
Tuesday, October 30, 2007
Symbol of Blood, Part 2
Justification means to be forgiven or according to direct translation to be made righteous. Clearly, only the righteous will dwell with God. Alma 5:58, "For the names of the righteous shall be written in the book of life, and unto them will I grant an inheritance at my right hand." Interesting as well is that the 'just' is a synonym with the 'righteous', further linking the words.
When we are forgiven by God, we are 'justified' and made righteous again. Moroni 6:8 "But as oft as they repented and sought forgiveness, with real intent, they were forgiven."
But sanctification is greater than justification. Sanctification is to be made holy - and that is greater than righteous. There are plenty of scriptures to begin to show the difference. First in D&C 60:7, "For I am able to make you holy, and your sins are forgiven you." Sanctification and justification are TWO seperate steps.
Is being 'righteous' enough to enter God's presence? Look at 1 Nephi 10:21, "Wherefore, if ye have sought to do wickedly in the days of your probation, then ye are found unclean before the judgment-seat of God; and no unclean thing can dwell with God; wherefore, ye must be cast off forever." No unclean thing can dwell with God. Forgiveness is NOT cleanliness since forgiveness absolves us before God, but not of the price of sin. Remember, mercy cannot rob justice. Just because God forgives and forgets from His perspective does not mean we ourselves are clean.
Moroni 10:33 sums it up perfectly, "And again, if ye by the grace of God are perfect in Christ, and deny not his power, then are ye sanctified in Christ by the grace of God, through the shedding of the blood of Christ, which is in the covenant of the Father unto the remission of your sins, that ye become holy, without spot."
Without spot matches perfectly with becoming clean before God. Again in Alma 13, speaking of those that are righteous High Priests, the Lord says, "Therefore they were called after this holy order, and were sanctified, and their garments were washed white through the blood of the Lamb."
I could go on about the difference of Justification and Sanctification, and probably will later on, but I think that is enough for now. But, here is the thing - in every scripture I have noted about Sanctification, the same scripture also mentions the blood of Christ. Sanctification and the symbol of the blood of Christ are intimately connected and that is why I have spent so much time quantifying sanctification. Now onto the link between it and the blood.
One last thought that I will save for another time. My belief is that sin puts a spiritual stain on our spirit. I believe many of these scriptures about being washed are literal. When we feel the spirit, one of the things we are feeling from the warm glow is the actual cleaning of our spirits. Spiritual cleaning is a warming process. Again the symbolism of baptism by fire by receiving the Gift of the Holy Ghost - another proof of the difference between justification and sanctification - two baptisms. Spiritual stain can be seen by the trained eye. Some people seem to be full of light in their countenance. That is the absence of dark spiritual stain. Spiritual stain covers the inate emittance of light from our spirit. I'll come back to it since this will probably all come full circle when I finish the symbol of blood discussion.
When we are forgiven by God, we are 'justified' and made righteous again. Moroni 6:8 "But as oft as they repented and sought forgiveness, with real intent, they were forgiven."
But sanctification is greater than justification. Sanctification is to be made holy - and that is greater than righteous. There are plenty of scriptures to begin to show the difference. First in D&C 60:7, "For I am able to make you holy, and your sins are forgiven you." Sanctification and justification are TWO seperate steps.
Is being 'righteous' enough to enter God's presence? Look at 1 Nephi 10:21, "Wherefore, if ye have sought to do wickedly in the days of your probation, then ye are found unclean before the judgment-seat of God; and no unclean thing can dwell with God; wherefore, ye must be cast off forever." No unclean thing can dwell with God. Forgiveness is NOT cleanliness since forgiveness absolves us before God, but not of the price of sin. Remember, mercy cannot rob justice. Just because God forgives and forgets from His perspective does not mean we ourselves are clean.
Moroni 10:33 sums it up perfectly, "And again, if ye by the grace of God are perfect in Christ, and deny not his power, then are ye sanctified in Christ by the grace of God, through the shedding of the blood of Christ, which is in the covenant of the Father unto the remission of your sins, that ye become holy, without spot."
Without spot matches perfectly with becoming clean before God. Again in Alma 13, speaking of those that are righteous High Priests, the Lord says, "Therefore they were called after this holy order, and were sanctified, and their garments were washed white through the blood of the Lamb."
I could go on about the difference of Justification and Sanctification, and probably will later on, but I think that is enough for now. But, here is the thing - in every scripture I have noted about Sanctification, the same scripture also mentions the blood of Christ. Sanctification and the symbol of the blood of Christ are intimately connected and that is why I have spent so much time quantifying sanctification. Now onto the link between it and the blood.
One last thought that I will save for another time. My belief is that sin puts a spiritual stain on our spirit. I believe many of these scriptures about being washed are literal. When we feel the spirit, one of the things we are feeling from the warm glow is the actual cleaning of our spirits. Spiritual cleaning is a warming process. Again the symbolism of baptism by fire by receiving the Gift of the Holy Ghost - another proof of the difference between justification and sanctification - two baptisms. Spiritual stain can be seen by the trained eye. Some people seem to be full of light in their countenance. That is the absence of dark spiritual stain. Spiritual stain covers the inate emittance of light from our spirit. I'll come back to it since this will probably all come full circle when I finish the symbol of blood discussion.
Monday, October 22, 2007
Symbol of Blood, Part 1
Two scriptures are the source of a new question. First, Lev. 17:11, "For the life of the flesh is in the blood: and I have given it to you upon the altar to make an atonement for your souls: for it is the blood that maketh an atonement for the soul." This is a suprisingly beautiful scripture in the middle of otherwise detailed prescriptions for the Law of Moses. What is the significance of 'blood' in the Atonement and why does it figure so prominently in our Church's symbolism?
Second is a great scripture in Moses 6, verses 59-62. I won't quote for space. This scripture is amazing because it is a single sentence (see punctuation) that attempts to state the entire plan of salvation in one sentece. Again in these scriptures the words, "This is the plan of salvation unto all men, through the blood of mine Only Begotten."
Before I can really get to the question of the blood, I first need to nail down with exactness the difference between 'Justification' and 'Sanctification'. Part of the blood answer is in the subtle difference of these two words. Again see the scripture in Moses 6 to see why that is true.
According to various Bible dictionaries that explain the Greek root, Justify is to make righteous. It is also the act of declaring that someone is made righteous. Sanctify is similar. Sanctify is to make holy. So what is the difference between being righteous and holy? Justify in the secular sense is to demonstrate something to be right. That still supports to make righteous.
First, justification. Here are some key scriptures on being justified. It is really interesting that most of the scriptures cited under 'Justify' in the Topical Guide don't actually have the word 'justify' in them. 3 Nephi 27:16 is cited for Justify. It reads,
"And it shall come to pass, that whoso repenteth and is baptized in my name shall be filled; and if he endureth to the end, behold, him will I hold guiltless before my Father at that day when I shall stand to judge the world."
Many other of the scriptures also contain concepts of removing guilt. Removing guilt seems to equate to forgiveness, or being pardonned. My assumption is that to be Justified is to be forgiven. That makes sense with the Greek definition of made righteous - to be forgiven. To be forgiven of disobedience and made righteous.
We spent a lot of time in the student stake proving that Sanctification is something more than just being forgiven. I'll note some of those proof points tomorrow.
Second is a great scripture in Moses 6, verses 59-62. I won't quote for space. This scripture is amazing because it is a single sentence (see punctuation) that attempts to state the entire plan of salvation in one sentece. Again in these scriptures the words, "This is the plan of salvation unto all men, through the blood of mine Only Begotten."
Before I can really get to the question of the blood, I first need to nail down with exactness the difference between 'Justification' and 'Sanctification'. Part of the blood answer is in the subtle difference of these two words. Again see the scripture in Moses 6 to see why that is true.
According to various Bible dictionaries that explain the Greek root, Justify is to make righteous. It is also the act of declaring that someone is made righteous. Sanctify is similar. Sanctify is to make holy. So what is the difference between being righteous and holy? Justify in the secular sense is to demonstrate something to be right. That still supports to make righteous.
First, justification. Here are some key scriptures on being justified. It is really interesting that most of the scriptures cited under 'Justify' in the Topical Guide don't actually have the word 'justify' in them. 3 Nephi 27:16 is cited for Justify. It reads,
"And it shall come to pass, that whoso repenteth and is baptized in my name shall be filled; and if he endureth to the end, behold, him will I hold guiltless before my Father at that day when I shall stand to judge the world."
Many other of the scriptures also contain concepts of removing guilt. Removing guilt seems to equate to forgiveness, or being pardonned. My assumption is that to be Justified is to be forgiven. That makes sense with the Greek definition of made righteous - to be forgiven. To be forgiven of disobedience and made righteous.
We spent a lot of time in the student stake proving that Sanctification is something more than just being forgiven. I'll note some of those proof points tomorrow.
Thursday, October 11, 2007
Source of Suffering, Atonement, Part 3
The idea that the Father administered the bitter cup to the lips of Savior has really stayed with me. Abraham's dagger had its own horror to a knowing parent, but there is something so much more intensely terrible of a parent putting the 'bitter cup' to a child's lips. Then for an all-powerful mature adult to accept it! The image in my mind is that the Savior did not put His hands forth for the cup - that it could only by handled and administered by the Father. All Jesus could do was open His mouth to receive.
The 'cup' imagery works so well. It is not that the Father is mad at us or that he has some selfish need to vent his frustrations at our weakness. It is that the Fall, our own personal sins, and the ensuing physical dealth have added to the cup's contents and now must somehow be consumed. Being perfect uniquely qualified the Savior to drink the contents once for all.
Scriptures cited earlier make it clear that if we do not choose to accept the Savior's sacrifice, then our own cup, filled by our own actions, must be consumed ourselves. That will take time. Again, why those valiant in the testimony of Christ are ready for immediate resurrection and those not must finish the own personal terrible task before passing onto to glory.
Last topic to consider in this line: the role of Satan in Christ's suffering.
Of the many goals of the Atonement, these are two for this thought: (1) answer the demands of Justice discussed so far, and (2) win power over Satan. Satan does not appear to be the source of answering the demands of Justice. I think there is enough evidence the Cup was not of Satan, but Satan was of course determined to prevent the Savior from drinking.
Sunday School class this year pointed out the importance of the JST of Mark 14:32-34. It clarifies that it was the disciples who were, "The disciples began to be sore amazed, and to be very heavy, and to complain in their hearts, wondering if this be the Messiah."
Certainly sounds like a description of Satan's presence.
Then back in the original text in Mark, the Savior's comment to Peter in 38, 'Watch ye and pray, lest ye enter into temptation. The spirit truly is ready, but the flesh is weak." Again words that describe the presence of Satan: temptation, watch, and praying for support. What temptation was Christ speaking of? I think He knew the presence of Satan and wanted the disciples to be on their gaurd.
In between the focus that the Savior would have had to exercise to drink the bitter cup, Satan was certainly tormenting. Maybe that was one role of the visiting angel - to cast out Satan from the focus and pain that the Savior had to endure at the edge of the infinite bitter cup.
Just turning back to the Savior's comments to the apostles quickly, it appears that the Savior is chiding the apostles throughout the experience. Isn't it a positive to have the Savior say that the Spirit is willing? Christ knows they are trying. Could his response point to His gathering his strength to face another set of suffering? Reaffirming that those He was so intently serving were trying (the Spirit) so hard to reach the point of perfection. Recognizing the weakness of the flesh and that He must continue on in their behalf.
My feeling is that Mark 14:41,42 is so missed for what it is:
"And he cometh the third time, and saith unto them, Sleep on now, and take your rest: it is enough, the hour is come; behold, the Son of man is betrayed into the hands of sinners. Rise up, let us go; lo, he that betrayeth me is at hand."
What may appear on first read to be a rebuke to sleep on makes no sense. Logically, why would the Savior say 'sleep on' in the same thought as 'rise up'? Clearly he didn't mean one at face value. On top of that, would the Savior exiting Gethsemane really use sarcasm? It is a ridiculous thought.
Mark 14:41 is a great scripture - "Sleep on now, take your rest: it is enough" - the first proclomation by the Savior that the Atonement was complete! That we His brethren could take our rest, take our rest from the viles of Justice, the suffering of death, our own bitter cup. "Sleep on now" can be easily rephrased to live your life, don't worry, I have saved you. This is not a rebuke! This is a proclomation of peace, life, and glory - the perfect and infinite redemption of mankind.
The 'cup' imagery works so well. It is not that the Father is mad at us or that he has some selfish need to vent his frustrations at our weakness. It is that the Fall, our own personal sins, and the ensuing physical dealth have added to the cup's contents and now must somehow be consumed. Being perfect uniquely qualified the Savior to drink the contents once for all.
Scriptures cited earlier make it clear that if we do not choose to accept the Savior's sacrifice, then our own cup, filled by our own actions, must be consumed ourselves. That will take time. Again, why those valiant in the testimony of Christ are ready for immediate resurrection and those not must finish the own personal terrible task before passing onto to glory.
Last topic to consider in this line: the role of Satan in Christ's suffering.
Of the many goals of the Atonement, these are two for this thought: (1) answer the demands of Justice discussed so far, and (2) win power over Satan. Satan does not appear to be the source of answering the demands of Justice. I think there is enough evidence the Cup was not of Satan, but Satan was of course determined to prevent the Savior from drinking.
Sunday School class this year pointed out the importance of the JST of Mark 14:32-34. It clarifies that it was the disciples who were, "The disciples began to be sore amazed, and to be very heavy, and to complain in their hearts, wondering if this be the Messiah."
Certainly sounds like a description of Satan's presence.
Then back in the original text in Mark, the Savior's comment to Peter in 38, 'Watch ye and pray, lest ye enter into temptation. The spirit truly is ready, but the flesh is weak." Again words that describe the presence of Satan: temptation, watch, and praying for support. What temptation was Christ speaking of? I think He knew the presence of Satan and wanted the disciples to be on their gaurd.
In between the focus that the Savior would have had to exercise to drink the bitter cup, Satan was certainly tormenting. Maybe that was one role of the visiting angel - to cast out Satan from the focus and pain that the Savior had to endure at the edge of the infinite bitter cup.
Just turning back to the Savior's comments to the apostles quickly, it appears that the Savior is chiding the apostles throughout the experience. Isn't it a positive to have the Savior say that the Spirit is willing? Christ knows they are trying. Could his response point to His gathering his strength to face another set of suffering? Reaffirming that those He was so intently serving were trying (the Spirit) so hard to reach the point of perfection. Recognizing the weakness of the flesh and that He must continue on in their behalf.
My feeling is that Mark 14:41,42 is so missed for what it is:
"And he cometh the third time, and saith unto them, Sleep on now, and take your rest: it is enough, the hour is come; behold, the Son of man is betrayed into the hands of sinners. Rise up, let us go; lo, he that betrayeth me is at hand."
What may appear on first read to be a rebuke to sleep on makes no sense. Logically, why would the Savior say 'sleep on' in the same thought as 'rise up'? Clearly he didn't mean one at face value. On top of that, would the Savior exiting Gethsemane really use sarcasm? It is a ridiculous thought.
Mark 14:41 is a great scripture - "Sleep on now, take your rest: it is enough" - the first proclomation by the Savior that the Atonement was complete! That we His brethren could take our rest, take our rest from the viles of Justice, the suffering of death, our own bitter cup. "Sleep on now" can be easily rephrased to live your life, don't worry, I have saved you. This is not a rebuke! This is a proclomation of peace, life, and glory - the perfect and infinite redemption of mankind.
Wednesday, October 10, 2007
Source of Suffering, Atonement Part 2
Again, if the Atonement saves us from redemption by wrath, did Christ suffer an infinite redemption by wrath?
I mentioned before the statement of Jesus on the cross that His Father had abandonded Him. The other statement Christ makes to the Father is of course Matt 26:39,
"O my Father, if it be possible, let this cup pass from me: nevertheless not as I will, but as thou wilt."
Clearly the 'cup' Jesus refers to is given by His Father. John 18:11 backs that up when Jesus is arrested after Gethsemane.
"Then said Jesus unto Peter, Put up thy sword into the sheath: the cup which my Father hath given me, shall I not drink it?"
Jesus was experiencing wrath from the Father to pay the demands of justice, just as Isaac had received of his father Abraham.
Isaiah, 51:17, hundreds of years earlier makes the same direct analogy with God's wrath and the bitter cup.
"Awake, awake, stand up, O Jerusalem, which hast drunk at the hand of the LORD the cup of his fury; thou hast drunken the dregs of the cup of trembling, and wrung them out."
Imagine a child drinking a cup from a parent that is not yet old enough to hold it themselves. Imagine that cup being filled with something the child refuses to drink. It is a difficult image. Maybe even more than the proposed sacrifice of Isaac.
How much the Savior would have wanted to turn from the task! How much the Father would have wanted to hold the cup away from His lip. It only was possible as Gods convened in the name of their mission - to bring to pass the immortality and eternal life of man.
It puts new recognition to the Savior's initial words to the Nephites, 3 Nephi 11:11,
"And behold, I am the light and the life of the world; and I have drunk out of that bitter cup which the Father hath given me, and have glorified the Father in taking upon me the sins of the world, in the which I have suffered the will of the Father in all things from the beginning."
To show that the Savior suffered the same redemption by wrath - albeit infintely, that those who do not choose redemption by mercy will also face. (Again D&C 19) Read what Alma says in the chapter that launched this whole line of thinking in the first place. Amazing to find the same imagery that was the logical solution to the study, Alma 40:26,
"But behold, an awful death cometh upon the wicked; for they die as to things pertaining to things of righteousness; for they are unclean, and no unclean thing can inherit the kingdom of God; but they are cast out, and consigned to partake of the fruits of their labors or their works, which have been evil; and they drink the dregs of a bitter cup."
A couple of other references that advance the imagery of the cup as the wrath of God.
Jerimiah 25:15, "For thus saith the LORD God of Israel unto me; Take the wine cup of this fury at my hand, and cause all the nations, to whom I send thee, to drink it."
Revelations 16:19, "And the great city was divided into three parts, and the cities of the nations fell: and great Babylon came in remembrance before God, to give unto her the cup of the wine of the fierceness of his wrath."
I mentioned before the statement of Jesus on the cross that His Father had abandonded Him. The other statement Christ makes to the Father is of course Matt 26:39,
"O my Father, if it be possible, let this cup pass from me: nevertheless not as I will, but as thou wilt."
Clearly the 'cup' Jesus refers to is given by His Father. John 18:11 backs that up when Jesus is arrested after Gethsemane.
"Then said Jesus unto Peter, Put up thy sword into the sheath: the cup which my Father hath given me, shall I not drink it?"
Jesus was experiencing wrath from the Father to pay the demands of justice, just as Isaac had received of his father Abraham.
Isaiah, 51:17, hundreds of years earlier makes the same direct analogy with God's wrath and the bitter cup.
"Awake, awake, stand up, O Jerusalem, which hast drunk at the hand of the LORD the cup of his fury; thou hast drunken the dregs of the cup of trembling, and wrung them out."
Imagine a child drinking a cup from a parent that is not yet old enough to hold it themselves. Imagine that cup being filled with something the child refuses to drink. It is a difficult image. Maybe even more than the proposed sacrifice of Isaac.
How much the Savior would have wanted to turn from the task! How much the Father would have wanted to hold the cup away from His lip. It only was possible as Gods convened in the name of their mission - to bring to pass the immortality and eternal life of man.
It puts new recognition to the Savior's initial words to the Nephites, 3 Nephi 11:11,
"And behold, I am the light and the life of the world; and I have drunk out of that bitter cup which the Father hath given me, and have glorified the Father in taking upon me the sins of the world, in the which I have suffered the will of the Father in all things from the beginning."
To show that the Savior suffered the same redemption by wrath - albeit infintely, that those who do not choose redemption by mercy will also face. (Again D&C 19) Read what Alma says in the chapter that launched this whole line of thinking in the first place. Amazing to find the same imagery that was the logical solution to the study, Alma 40:26,
"But behold, an awful death cometh upon the wicked; for they die as to things pertaining to things of righteousness; for they are unclean, and no unclean thing can inherit the kingdom of God; but they are cast out, and consigned to partake of the fruits of their labors or their works, which have been evil; and they drink the dregs of a bitter cup."
A couple of other references that advance the imagery of the cup as the wrath of God.
Jerimiah 25:15, "For thus saith the LORD God of Israel unto me; Take the wine cup of this fury at my hand, and cause all the nations, to whom I send thee, to drink it."
Revelations 16:19, "And the great city was divided into three parts, and the cities of the nations fell: and great Babylon came in remembrance before God, to give unto her the cup of the wine of the fierceness of his wrath."
Tuesday, October 9, 2007
Source of Suffering, Atonement
Thinking about redemption by wrath versus redemption by mercy and its corresponding effect on the order of resurrection, makes me wonder about the relationship of redemption by wrath to what the Savior suffered in the Atonement.
Clearly we are saved from our own personal redemption by wrath as discussed in the First Resurrection idea. Another supporting scripture from the New Testament. Romans 5:8,9
"But God commendeth his love toward us, in that, while we were yet sinners, Christ died for us. Much more then, being now justified by his blood, we shall be saved from wrath through him."
If 'wrath' is the price to satisfy justice, then did Jesus receive the wrath of His Father?
The obvious example that He did is the story of Isaaac and Abraham. Abraham, although significantly advanced in years compared to the youthful Issaac, is commanded to inflict the sacrifice himself. It is one of the few insights to the perspective of the Father in the Atonement.
In Isaiah, the Lord uses interesting words, "In a little wrath I hid my face from thee for a moment; but with everlasting kindness will I have mercy on thee, saith the LORD thy Redeemer." Isa 54:8. There may be a connection between wrath and God hiding His presence. It makes me think of the crucifiction. Matt. 27:46, "My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me?" Is this where Christ suffered redemption by wrath, if at all?
In Isaiah 53:1o, "Yet it pleased the LORD to bruise him; he hath put him to grief" More evidence that a source of His suffering was direct from the Father.
I'll keep looking, I really like the 55th chapter of Isaiah. The imagery of the rain falling and not returning is very comforting. I love the phrase 'abundantly pardon'.
"Seek ye the Lord while he may be found, call ye upon him while he is near:
Let the wicked forsake his way, and the unrighteous man his thoughts: and let him return unto the LORD, and he will have mercy upon him; and to our God, for he will abundantly pardon.
For my thoughts are not your thoughts, neither are your ways my ways, saith the LORD.
For as the heavens are higher than the earth, so are my ways higher than your ways, and my thoughts than your thoughts.
For as the rain cometh down, and the snow from heaven, and returneth not thither, but watereth the earth, and maketh it bring forth and bud, that it may give seed to the sower, and bread to the eater"
Clearly we are saved from our own personal redemption by wrath as discussed in the First Resurrection idea. Another supporting scripture from the New Testament. Romans 5:8,9
"But God commendeth his love toward us, in that, while we were yet sinners, Christ died for us. Much more then, being now justified by his blood, we shall be saved from wrath through him."
If 'wrath' is the price to satisfy justice, then did Jesus receive the wrath of His Father?
The obvious example that He did is the story of Isaaac and Abraham. Abraham, although significantly advanced in years compared to the youthful Issaac, is commanded to inflict the sacrifice himself. It is one of the few insights to the perspective of the Father in the Atonement.
In Isaiah, the Lord uses interesting words, "In a little wrath I hid my face from thee for a moment; but with everlasting kindness will I have mercy on thee, saith the LORD thy Redeemer." Isa 54:8. There may be a connection between wrath and God hiding His presence. It makes me think of the crucifiction. Matt. 27:46, "My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me?" Is this where Christ suffered redemption by wrath, if at all?
In Isaiah 53:1o, "Yet it pleased the LORD to bruise him; he hath put him to grief" More evidence that a source of His suffering was direct from the Father.
I'll keep looking, I really like the 55th chapter of Isaiah. The imagery of the rain falling and not returning is very comforting. I love the phrase 'abundantly pardon'.
"Seek ye the Lord while he may be found, call ye upon him while he is near:
Let the wicked forsake his way, and the unrighteous man his thoughts: and let him return unto the LORD, and he will have mercy upon him; and to our God, for he will abundantly pardon.
For my thoughts are not your thoughts, neither are your ways my ways, saith the LORD.
For as the heavens are higher than the earth, so are my ways higher than your ways, and my thoughts than your thoughts.
For as the rain cometh down, and the snow from heaven, and returneth not thither, but watereth the earth, and maketh it bring forth and bud, that it may give seed to the sower, and bread to the eater"
Monday, October 8, 2007
First Resurrection, Part 2
Continuing the concept from Part 1, when does the 'redemption by wrath' begin and what are its consequences?
As a missionary I had an investigator ask me about Alma 40. I couldn't answer it. Much of the chapter seems inconsistent with what I understood the Plan of Salvation to be at that point. There is no mention of the atonement. It reads purely as a judgement of justice, based solely on works.
I now believe that this chapter describes a 'first judgement' based entirely on justice that takes place immediately upon our physical death. This judgement is NOT the 'final judgement' we all know better that will hinge primarily on our consistent acceptance of the Atonement. Alma 40:11
"Now, concerning the state of the soul between death and the resurrection—Behold, it has been made known unto me by an angel, that the spirits of all men, as soon as they are departed from this mortal body, yea, the spirits of all men, whether they be good or evil, are taken home to that God who gave them life."
Presented before our Father with memory of mortal life only, we are received into paradise if we are righteous - Alma 40:12
"And then shall it come to pass, that the spirits of those who are righteous are received into a state of happiness, which is called paradise, a state of rest, a state of peace, where they shall rest from all their troubles and from all care, and sorrow."
Paradise is the corect word. It is the traditional Spirit Paradise in the Plan of Salvation. There is no resurrection. There is no sanctification of the Atonement. But there is a release from the cares and evils of the world, and the shortcomings of a mortal body like fatigue and sickness. Our efforts will focus solely on teaching the benefits of the Atonement to others in 'prison'.
But in this first judgment - one of justice, the wicked will have an opposite fate. Alma 40:13
"And then shall it come to pass, that the spirits of the wicked, yea, who are evil—for behold, they have no part nor portion of the Spirit of the Lord; for behold, they chose evil works rather than good; therefore the spirit of the devil did enter into them, and take possession of their house—and these shall be cast out into outer darkness; there shall be weeping, and wailing, and gnashing of teeth, and this because of their own iniquity, being led captive by the will of the devil. Now this is the state of the souls of the wicked, yea, in darkness, and a state of awful, fearful looking for the fiery indignation of the wrath of God upon them; thus they remain in this state, as well as the righteous in paradise, until the time of their resurrection."
It is very interesting to me that this description of Spirit Prision are the exact same words as D&C 19 and D&C 76 that I used to prove redemption by wrath. Note also at the end of the above section in Alma 40 that it lasts 'until the TIME of their resurrection'.
Redemption by wrath begins immediately after death! Question - how are they released from spirit prison and given completed temple work by proxy? Who is really in Spirit Prison? Does redemption by wrath begin for everyone at physical death?
Side point, this does answer the question at least partially of how anyone could reject temple work after death and the after life is proven?
Remember the words - taken home to God. Yes, afterlife will be proven at that point, but our progession is far from over. Once they have seen God and been sent to Prison it will be very difficult to convince any one another, far more important, judgement is still coming.
As a missionary I had an investigator ask me about Alma 40. I couldn't answer it. Much of the chapter seems inconsistent with what I understood the Plan of Salvation to be at that point. There is no mention of the atonement. It reads purely as a judgement of justice, based solely on works.
I now believe that this chapter describes a 'first judgement' based entirely on justice that takes place immediately upon our physical death. This judgement is NOT the 'final judgement' we all know better that will hinge primarily on our consistent acceptance of the Atonement. Alma 40:11
"Now, concerning the state of the soul between death and the resurrection—Behold, it has been made known unto me by an angel, that the spirits of all men, as soon as they are departed from this mortal body, yea, the spirits of all men, whether they be good or evil, are taken home to that God who gave them life."
Presented before our Father with memory of mortal life only, we are received into paradise if we are righteous - Alma 40:12
"And then shall it come to pass, that the spirits of those who are righteous are received into a state of happiness, which is called paradise, a state of rest, a state of peace, where they shall rest from all their troubles and from all care, and sorrow."
Paradise is the corect word. It is the traditional Spirit Paradise in the Plan of Salvation. There is no resurrection. There is no sanctification of the Atonement. But there is a release from the cares and evils of the world, and the shortcomings of a mortal body like fatigue and sickness. Our efforts will focus solely on teaching the benefits of the Atonement to others in 'prison'.
But in this first judgment - one of justice, the wicked will have an opposite fate. Alma 40:13
"And then shall it come to pass, that the spirits of the wicked, yea, who are evil—for behold, they have no part nor portion of the Spirit of the Lord; for behold, they chose evil works rather than good; therefore the spirit of the devil did enter into them, and take possession of their house—and these shall be cast out into outer darkness; there shall be weeping, and wailing, and gnashing of teeth, and this because of their own iniquity, being led captive by the will of the devil. Now this is the state of the souls of the wicked, yea, in darkness, and a state of awful, fearful looking for the fiery indignation of the wrath of God upon them; thus they remain in this state, as well as the righteous in paradise, until the time of their resurrection."
It is very interesting to me that this description of Spirit Prision are the exact same words as D&C 19 and D&C 76 that I used to prove redemption by wrath. Note also at the end of the above section in Alma 40 that it lasts 'until the TIME of their resurrection'.
Redemption by wrath begins immediately after death! Question - how are they released from spirit prison and given completed temple work by proxy? Who is really in Spirit Prison? Does redemption by wrath begin for everyone at physical death?
Side point, this does answer the question at least partially of how anyone could reject temple work after death and the after life is proven?
Remember the words - taken home to God. Yes, afterlife will be proven at that point, but our progession is far from over. Once they have seen God and been sent to Prison it will be very difficult to convince any one another, far more important, judgement is still coming.
First Resurrection, Part 1
Why is there a 'first' resurrection and why is it the focus of so many modern day scriptures?
D&C 76:64-68 - "These are they who shall have part in the first resurrection. These are they who shall come forth in the resurrection of the just. These are they who are come unto Mount Zion, and unto the city of the living God, the heavenly place, the holiest of all. These are they who have come to an innumerable company of angels, to the general assembly and church of Enoch, and of the Firstborn. These are they whose names are written in heaven, where God and Christ are the judge of all."
The first clue, speaking about the sons of perdition without part in the resurrection, is D&C 76:38.
"Yea, verily, the only ones who shall not be redeemed in the due time of the Lord, after the sufferings of his wrath."
By describing the sons of perdition, the Lord also reveals a truth that all men will be redeemed if even by 'wrath'. He also reveals that 'time' is a factor in redemption through wrath.
D&C 19:17,18
"But if they would not repent they must suffer even as I; Which suffering caused myself, even God, the greatest of all, to tremble because of pain, and to bleed at every pore, and to suffer both body and spirit—and would that I might not drink the bitter cup, and shrink"
This scripture is the next light into 'redemption by wrath'. This scripture must be fulfilled and it will take time to execute.
I believe, outside of perdition, we will all be redeemed from the second death. For some it will be redemption by mercy, and for some, redemption by wrath. Look at D&C 76:69 that describes the redemption received by the church of the Firstborn
"These are they who are just men made perfect through Jesus the mediator of the new covenant, who wrought out this perfect atonement through the shedding of his own blood."
Just men made perfect through the Atonement. This is redemption by mercy. These saints will not have to endure redemption by wrath because they consistently chose the Redeemer as the answer to their faults. Once resurrected and applied to the full benefit of the Savior's sacrifice, they are immediately ready to enter God's presence. They do not have to experience redemption by wrath. They are the 'First' resurrection since their debt has already been paid.
Returning to D&C 19, the Lord explains the mystery that Endless punishment and Eternal punishment are proper names - the Lord's, - not adjectives. God's wrath is not eternal - His name is Eternal. It is 'His' punishment and it must be applied to those who did not consistently accept the Atonement - until the point that they are personally redeemed from the second death.
For those who did accept Christ from time to time - terrestial bodies, as described in D&C 76 as those 'not valiant in the testimony of Christ', the duration of redemption by wrath will be less since they partially accepted redemption by mercy. But they can't be part of the First Resurrection beacuse their redemption is not complete. They need time to suffer the demansds of justice before entering a glory. They are part of the 'second' resurrection.
Continung the same logic, the telestial bodies who did not accept Christ must suffer complete redemption by wrath and that takes longer than those who suffer it partially. They are part of 'last' resurrection because they have taken the longest path to redemption - justice.
To me this puts even greater value on the Atonement. By being 'valiant' in testimony of Jesus, I can enter the presence of God immediately, bypassing any redemption by wrath. It puts better focus onto the sufferings of Christ, who endured the redemption by wrath of all of mankind. It focuses scriptures like Alma 42:22-27
"But there is a law given, and a punishment affixed, and a repentance granted; which repentance, mercy claimeth; otherwise, justice claimeth the creature and executeth the law, and the law inflicteth the punishment; if not so, the works of justice would be destroyed, and God would cease to be God. But God ceaseth not to be God, and mercy claimeth the penitent, and mercy cometh because of the atonement; and the atonement bringeth to pass the resurrection of the dead; and the resurrection of the dead bringeth back men into the presence of God; and thus they are restored into his presence, to be judged according to their works, according to the law and justice. For behold, justice exerciseth all his demands, and also mercy claimeth all which is her own; and thus, none but the truly penitent are saved. What, do ye suppose that mercy can rob justice? I say unto you, Nay; not one whit. If so, God would cease to be God. And thus God bringeth about his great and eternal purposes, which were prepared from the foundation of the world. And thus cometh about the salvation and the redemption of men, and also their destruction and misery. Therefore, O my son, whosoever will come may come and partake of the waters of life freely; and whosoever will not come the same is not compelled to come; but in the last day it shall be restored unto him according to his deeds."
None but the truly penitent are saved, meaning saved from the redemption by wrath. Truly the Atonement is the power to save. I think if I fully comprehended the difference between remdemption by mercy and how sweet it would be to instantly enter the presence of God, over the opposite, I would act differently now. The Atonement is free - milk and honey without price. Our Father is so anxious to provide a path around justice and His is the ultimate perfect way.
D&C 76:64-68 - "These are they who shall have part in the first resurrection. These are they who shall come forth in the resurrection of the just. These are they who are come unto Mount Zion, and unto the city of the living God, the heavenly place, the holiest of all. These are they who have come to an innumerable company of angels, to the general assembly and church of Enoch, and of the Firstborn. These are they whose names are written in heaven, where God and Christ are the judge of all."
The first clue, speaking about the sons of perdition without part in the resurrection, is D&C 76:38.
"Yea, verily, the only ones who shall not be redeemed in the due time of the Lord, after the sufferings of his wrath."
By describing the sons of perdition, the Lord also reveals a truth that all men will be redeemed if even by 'wrath'. He also reveals that 'time' is a factor in redemption through wrath.
D&C 19:17,18
"But if they would not repent they must suffer even as I; Which suffering caused myself, even God, the greatest of all, to tremble because of pain, and to bleed at every pore, and to suffer both body and spirit—and would that I might not drink the bitter cup, and shrink"
This scripture is the next light into 'redemption by wrath'. This scripture must be fulfilled and it will take time to execute.
I believe, outside of perdition, we will all be redeemed from the second death. For some it will be redemption by mercy, and for some, redemption by wrath. Look at D&C 76:69 that describes the redemption received by the church of the Firstborn
"These are they who are just men made perfect through Jesus the mediator of the new covenant, who wrought out this perfect atonement through the shedding of his own blood."
Just men made perfect through the Atonement. This is redemption by mercy. These saints will not have to endure redemption by wrath because they consistently chose the Redeemer as the answer to their faults. Once resurrected and applied to the full benefit of the Savior's sacrifice, they are immediately ready to enter God's presence. They do not have to experience redemption by wrath. They are the 'First' resurrection since their debt has already been paid.
Returning to D&C 19, the Lord explains the mystery that Endless punishment and Eternal punishment are proper names - the Lord's, - not adjectives. God's wrath is not eternal - His name is Eternal. It is 'His' punishment and it must be applied to those who did not consistently accept the Atonement - until the point that they are personally redeemed from the second death.
For those who did accept Christ from time to time - terrestial bodies, as described in D&C 76 as those 'not valiant in the testimony of Christ', the duration of redemption by wrath will be less since they partially accepted redemption by mercy. But they can't be part of the First Resurrection beacuse their redemption is not complete. They need time to suffer the demansds of justice before entering a glory. They are part of the 'second' resurrection.
Continung the same logic, the telestial bodies who did not accept Christ must suffer complete redemption by wrath and that takes longer than those who suffer it partially. They are part of 'last' resurrection because they have taken the longest path to redemption - justice.
To me this puts even greater value on the Atonement. By being 'valiant' in testimony of Jesus, I can enter the presence of God immediately, bypassing any redemption by wrath. It puts better focus onto the sufferings of Christ, who endured the redemption by wrath of all of mankind. It focuses scriptures like Alma 42:22-27
"But there is a law given, and a punishment affixed, and a repentance granted; which repentance, mercy claimeth; otherwise, justice claimeth the creature and executeth the law, and the law inflicteth the punishment; if not so, the works of justice would be destroyed, and God would cease to be God. But God ceaseth not to be God, and mercy claimeth the penitent, and mercy cometh because of the atonement; and the atonement bringeth to pass the resurrection of the dead; and the resurrection of the dead bringeth back men into the presence of God; and thus they are restored into his presence, to be judged according to their works, according to the law and justice. For behold, justice exerciseth all his demands, and also mercy claimeth all which is her own; and thus, none but the truly penitent are saved. What, do ye suppose that mercy can rob justice? I say unto you, Nay; not one whit. If so, God would cease to be God. And thus God bringeth about his great and eternal purposes, which were prepared from the foundation of the world. And thus cometh about the salvation and the redemption of men, and also their destruction and misery. Therefore, O my son, whosoever will come may come and partake of the waters of life freely; and whosoever will not come the same is not compelled to come; but in the last day it shall be restored unto him according to his deeds."
None but the truly penitent are saved, meaning saved from the redemption by wrath. Truly the Atonement is the power to save. I think if I fully comprehended the difference between remdemption by mercy and how sweet it would be to instantly enter the presence of God, over the opposite, I would act differently now. The Atonement is free - milk and honey without price. Our Father is so anxious to provide a path around justice and His is the ultimate perfect way.
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